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Saturday, January 23, 2010

Education and Technology

If you want to see the future of education, don't watch children in the average classroom. Watch children play a video game. You'll see them engaged, excited, interacting, and learning—even if it's only about how to get to the next level of the game. Because of their immersion in this computerized world, children absorb information differently from their parents. Instead of following information passively from beginning to end—as people tend to do with television shows, newspapers, and books—children interact with the new technologies.

Schools now have an opportunity to apply the information technologies that are so effective outside the classroom for educational purposes. Taking advantage of these new technologies will require profound changes in the roles of teachers, students, and schools. Instead of being the repository of knowledge, teachers will be guides who help students to navigate through electronically accessible information. They will use the new technologies to build networks with each other, with parents and students, with academic and industrial experts, and with other professionals.

Turning opportunity into reality requires four important changes:

  • Industry must develop educational devices from comparatively low-price game hardware and software, thereby dramatically lowering the costs of educational technology.
  • Communities and government should include technological change when setting the agenda for systemic change in education.
  • Software-makers must tie the content of their products to quality information and to the national education standards as they are implemented.
  • Teachers must receive extensive training in how to use emerging information technologies.

Computers will not solve all the problems of education; many difficult issues will remain. But the new information technologies provide an unprecedented opportunity to reexamine how we educate our children.

Friday, January 22, 2010

KVPY(PHYSICS) interview questions

KVPY(PHYSICS)
1. What are the orders of drift velocity for normally applied potentials (0 to 5V) and that of random thermal
speed at room temperature say (300 K).
Ans. The drift velocity is of the order of 10m per second whereas random thermal velocity of electrons is of
the under of 105 metre per second.
2. What is the conventional direction of flow of current in a metallic conductor ?
Ans. The conventional direction of flow of current is taken as the direction of flow of positive charge from
higher potential to lower potential.
3. What is meant by ampere hour capacity of a cell ?
Ans. It is a measure of the electricity capacity of a cell, i.e., how much quantity of electricity a cell is capable
of supplying. It is measured by the product amperes x hours.
4. What do you mean by 10 A × h ?
Ans. 10 A × h means, the cell will supply 1 A current upto 10 hours. 2 A current upto 5 hours or 0.5 A current
upto 20 hours.
5. Which one is greater -e.m.f. or terminal p.d. across the cell ?
Ans. The e.m.f. is greater than the potential difference across the cell e.m.f.
6. Is it possible in any case where p.d. > e.m.f. of the cell ?
Ans. Yes, at the charging of the cell
7. Can you measure e.m.f. of a cell with a voltmeter ?
Ans. No, because it requites some current from the cell for its reading. (it is measured by potentiometer)
8. When is the Wheatstone’s bridge said to be most sensitive ?
Ans. When all the four resistances P, Q, R and S are of nearly the same order of magnitude.
9. Define figure of merit of galvanometer ?
Ans. The figure of merit which is defined as the current required to produce a deflection of one division in the
galvanometer. ( k = I/).
10. Define current sensitivity and voltage sensitivity.
Ans. Current sensitivity = /I and voltage sensitivity = /V
11. How can you measure alternating current ?
Ans. Heating effect of current, Q = I2.R.t. is independent of the direction of flow of current because I2 would
always be positive. Therefore, Hot Wire ammeter is used for this purpose.
12. Suppose you have been given two tuning forks of the same metal on which marks of the frequency
have disappeared. How will you detect the one with higher frequency ?
Ans. The one which has smaller prongs will be of higher frequency.
13. What do you mean by a note ? How does it differ from a tone ?
Ans. A tone is simple sound resulting from a pure simple harmonic motion. On the other hand a note is a
complex sound made up of a complex periodic motion as obtained by the superpositions of a number of
pure simple harmonic motions.
14. If the prongs of a fork are rubbed with a file slightly or prong of tuning fork is loaded with wax than what
will be the change in frequency in both the cases.
Ans. Frequency will decreases in both the cases.
15. If you set your watch by the sound of a distant siren, will it go fast or slow ?
Ans. go slow, [because, sound take some finite time to reach you]
16. When we start filling an empty bucket with water the pitch of the sound produced goes on changing,
why ?
Ans. Bucket used like a closed pipe
fundamental tone,  =
4L
u
 
L
1
So, L decreases, then  increases and pitch is also increases
17 A tunnel is drilled across earth passing through the centre. An object is dropped in this tunnel. What will
be the time period of this object.
Ans. It will oscillate about the centre of earth, its time period will be
T = g
R
2 = 86.4 minute
18. If tunnel is drilled across the earth and it does not pass through the centre of earth, then what will be its
time period ?
Ans. T = g
R
2 = 86.4 minute
19. Time period of a simple pendulum T   . If we increase the length (l of the pendulum then what will be
the maximum time period ?
Ans. T = g
R
2 = 86.4 minute
20. the ball of a pendulum is hollow and filled with water. A small hole is made in the bottom of the ball, water
comes out from it. How the time period of pendulum will effect.
Ans. First it will increase then decrease.
21. If we increase the current drawn from the cell then what will be the effect on potential difference across
the cell ?
Ans. V = E– Ir, it will decrease
22. A car is moving towards north direction with speed V. What will be the induced emf in the axle of the car.
If it is moving towards east, what will be the emf induced in the axle.
Ans. (i) V is towards north
emf induced due to BH
So, e = 0 )j ˆ B j ˆv .( i ˆ   H 
emf induced due to BV
) k ˆ B ( j ˆv .[ i ˆ    V = – BV v
(ii) Car is moving towards east
so, emf due to BH
e = 0 )j ˆ B i ˆV ( j ˆ    H 
due to BV
e = )] j ˆ ( B i ˆ V [ j ˆ    V  = 0
23. What are soft and hard x-rays ? Why are they so called ?
Ans. 0.1 to 1 Å hard x-rays, 1 to 10Å soft x-rays
24. On which experiment Kepler’s laws are based ?
Ans. Tycho brahe’s experiments
25. If the earth is at one-fourth of its present distance from the sun, then what will be the duration of year ?
Ans. 1/8 the present year
Sol. T(r) 3/2 T =
8
1
4
1 3/ 2
 




26. Who was the first to introduce MKS system ?
Ans. Giorgi
27. A liquid boils at a temperature of which its saturated vapour pressure becomes ?
Ans. Equal to the atmospheric pressure.
28. What will be the value of C in an adiabatic change for a monatomic gas P TC ?
Ans. P1– = T–  P  TC = T  P = T(–/1–)
 P =
3
5
1
5 / 3
T


= T5/2  C = 5/2
29. What will be kinetic energy of molecules of 1g He gas at 100ºC ?
Ans. 1200 joule
30. A particle of charge +q is dropped from rest above a height ‘h’ from the surface of a uniformly charged
sphere of charge +Q and radius R. When will be the particle hit the surface of the sphere ?
Ans. Hit the surface only if h is large enough.
31. If a piece of iron is wound around by a coil and an AC current p is passed, it gets hot. Why ?
A. Hysteresis and Eddy current if the frequency is slow.
32. A mercury barometer is surrounded by a big cylinder. What happens to the level of mercury, if air is
slowly removed from the cylinder ?
A. Steadily falls.
33. A solid cylinder of diameter D is mounted on a frictionless horizontal axle. A string is wrapped around it.
A heavy mass suspended by the string strikes the ground with a velocity V. How V depends on D ?
A. V is independent of D
34. Water rises to a height of 1.25 cm in a particular capillary tube. If the tube is cut at a height of 1.0 cm.
What will happen to the level of water ?
A. Water will stay at the top
35. Optical fibres make light travel along curved lines by. How ?
Ans. using multiple total internal reflection.
36. If a prism is cut into two pieces separated at very small distance then, what will be the change in angle
of deviation ?
A. Will always remain the same
37. An observer looks at a tree of height 15m with a telescope of magnifying power 10. At what distance the
tree will appear to him ?
A. 10 times nearer
38. If radium and chlorine combine to form radium chloride the compound will be radioactive or not.
A. As radioactive as the radium content.
39. An ice cube is suspended in vacuum in a gravity free room. What will be the shape of ice cube after
some time ?
A. Ice acquire will be in spherical shape
40. What will be the dimensions of radiation pressure in case of an electromagnetic wave ?
A. Energy density
Sol. Area Displacement
Force Displacement
Area
Force


 =
Volume
Energy
41. What is the common name of ‘h’ used in the formula R =
2
h
6h
2
 
?
Ans. It is called sagitta
42. What is the difference between a clock and a watch ?
Ans. Clock has a bif size its least count is 1second. Watch has smaller size its least count is 0.1s/0.25s
43. The planets whose orbits are smaller than that of the earth are called ?
Ans. Inferior planets
44. Which is lighter–moist air or dry air ?
A. moist air–(dry air + water vapour)
45. What is hoar frost ?
Ans. Change of the substance from gaseous state to solid state without changing into liquid state is known
as hoar frost.
1. How many times the speed of earth about its axis is increased so that weight of an object at equator
becomes “zero” ?
(A) 10 times (B*) 17 times (C) 27 times (D) 30 times
2. Lo is the satelliteof :
(A*) Jupiter (B) Mercury (C) Venus (D) none of these
3. Two soap bubbles of different radii are connected by a small tube. then :
(A*) Air flows from the smaller bubble to bigger bubble
(B) Air flows from the bigger bubble to smaller bubble
(C) Air will not flows in any direction
(D) None of these
33. Can a substance contract on heating ? If yes then give one example.
A. yes, ice
34. Two thermometers are constructed in the same way, except that one has a spherical bulb and the other
a cylindrical bulb. Which will respond quickly to temperature changes ?
A. Cylindrical bulb (has grater surface area).
35. Why the brake drums of a car are heated, when it moves down a hill at constant speed ?
A. Kinetic energy remains constant. but potential energy decreases and its converted into the heat energy.
36. Why a gas has two specific heats ?
A. In case of gas, volume and pressure change on heating so, specific heat of gas defined either at
constant volume or constant pressure.
38. If a door of a working refrigerator is kept open for a long time in a closed room, What will be the effect
on room temperature ?
Ans. Warm
39. Animals curl into a ball, when they feel very cold. Why ?
A. the total energy radiated by a body depends on the surface area. [low surface area produced, low
radiation of heat]
40. On which stroke the otto engine does work ?
Ans. Compression stroke
42. Define resonance.
43. How can bats see in darkness ?
Ans. Bats, produced ultrasonic waves of very small wave lengths (high frequencies) the reflected waves
from an obstacle, give the direction, nature and size of obstacle.
44. Two solid pieces one of gold and the other of silver weigh the same in water. which will weigh more in air ?
Ans. The silver piece will weigh more.

KVPY(CHEMISTRY) Interview questions

KVPY(CHEMISTRY)
1. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of dipole moment, toluene (I), o-dichlorobenzene (II),
m-dichlorobenzene (III) and p-dichlorobenzene (IV ).
Ans. IV < I < III < II
2. Arrange CN, CN+ and CN– in increasing order of relative stabilities.
Ans. CN– < CN < CN+
3. In which solvent NaCl has maximum solubility ?
Ans. H2O
4. Indicate wether glycine (NH2 – CH2 – COOH) is an acid or a base or both.
Ans. Both (Since in this -NH2 is basic and -COOH is acidic)
5. A reaction between AlCl3 and NH3 is called -
Sol. Neutralisation
6. Which metal is not found in meteorites ?
Sol. Ag, Au
7. What is use of Hall-Heroult cell ?
Ans. Purification of aluminium.
8. What is the difference between corundum and carborundum ?
Ans. Corundum is Al2O3 and carborundum is SiC.
9. In which climate tin cannot be used as structural metal ?
Ans. In cold climate because in cold climate tin becomes brittle.
10. Oxide of which metal is used in sun screen ?
Ans. ZnO
11. What is the chemical formula of fool’s gold ?
Sol. FeS2
12. When an impurity in metal has greater affinity for oxygen and is more easily oxidised than the metal itself,
then which process is used to refine the metal ?
Sol. Cupellation
13. Which compounds act as propellant for rockets ?
Ans. Liquid hydrogen + Liquid oxygen
14. How many H-bonds are formed by a water molecule ?
Ans. 4 O
H
H
15. What is the volume of O2 liberated at NTP by complete decomposition of 100 ml of 2M solution of H2O2 ?
Ans. 2.24 L
Volume strength = 11.2 × M
= 11. 2 × 2 = 22.4 L
 1000 ml = 22.4 L
 100 ml =
1
100
1000
22.4 
= 2.24 L
16. Zinc gives H2 gas with conc. H2SO4 and conc. HCl but not with conc. HNO3. Why ?
Ans. NO3
– ion is reduced to NO2 in prefercence to H3O+ ( hydronium) ion.
17. A compound of mercury which used in cosmetics, in Ayurvedic and Yunani medicnes and known as Vermil
lion.s
Ans. HgS
18. ‘Bordeaux mixture’ is used as fungicide. Write its composition.
Ans. CuSO4 + Ca(OH)2
19. Name the metals present in insulin, haemoglobin and vitamin B12 respectively.
Ans. Zn, Fe, Co
20. A substance X is a compound of an element of group IA. The substance X gives violet colour in flame test,
X is :
Ans. KCl
21. Why is Na2S2O3. 5H2O used in photography ?
Ans. To remove decomposed AgBr as a soluble complex.
22. What are the products of electrolysis of concentrated common salt solution ?
Ans. NaOH, H2, Cl2
23. What happenss when a standard solution of NaOH is left in air for a few hours ?
Ans. Strength will decrease of NaOH solution.
24. Which impurities in crude common salt are responsible for its hygroscopic nature ?
Ans. CaCl2 and MgCl2
25. CO2 gas along with solid (Y) is obtained when sodium salt (X) is heated. (X) is again obtained when CO2 gas
is passed into aqueous solution of (Y). (X) and (Y) are :
Ans. NaHCO3, Na2CO3
2NaHCO3 Heat Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
(X) (Y)
Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2  2NaHCO3
(X) (Y)
26. On heating a mixture containing 1 mole each of Li2CO3 and K2CO3 ------- mole of ------- gas(es) is/are formed.
Ans. One mole of CO2
Sol. Li2CO3 decomposes while K2CO3 is stable and does not decompose.
Li2CO3  Li2O + CO2
1 mole 1 mole 1 mole
27. There is loss in mass when mixture of Li2CO3 and Na2CO3.10H2O is heated strongly. The loss is due to :
Ans. Both Li2CO3 and Na2CO3.10H2O
Sol. Li2CO3 Heat Li2O + CO2
Na2CO3 . 10H2O HeatNa2CO3 + 10H2O
28. Metal (M) + N2 Nitride H2ONH3 . The metal (M) is -
Ans. Li, Mg
29. Na2O2 has light yellow colour. This is due to :
Ans. Presence of trace of NaO2 .
30. Water is added to calcium carbide and the evolved gas is passed through dilute H2SO4 containing HgSO4.
Which organic compound are formed ?
Ans. CH3CHO
Sol. CaC2 + 2H2O  C2H2 + Ca(OH)2
CH  CH + HOH
2 4
4
H SO
HgSO CH = CH 2
OH
CH – CHO 3
31. The nitrate (A) can be confirmed by flame test. The colour imparted by the salt to the flame is -
Ans. Green
32. Why Gypsum is added to portland cement ?
Ans. To slow down the process of setting.
33. A colourless gas which burns with blue flame and reduces CuO to Cu is -
Ans. CO
34. Carbon has valency four in CH4. What is its valency in acetylene ?
Ans. 4
35. Why H2SO4 is not used for the preparation of CO2 from marble chips ?
Ans. Calcium sulphate is sparingly soluble and get deposited on marble chips and stops the reaction.
36. Which type of glass has the smallest coefficient of thermal expansion ?
Ans. Pyrex glass
37. How is colour is imparted to glass ?
Ans. By adding metal oxides
38. In the ring test for nitrates, the ring formed is due to formation of -
Ans. FeSO4. NO
39. Oxalate + MnO2 + dil. H2SO4  Gas. The gas evolved is :
Ans. CO2
40. A gas is evolved which burns with blue flame when the mixture is heated with conc. H2SO4. The mixture
contains :
Ans. Oxalate/Carbonate
41. Which metal sulphide is yellow in colour ?
Ans. ZnS / PbS
42. A mixture when rubbed with organic acid, smells like vinegar. It contains :
Ans. CH3COO– acetate
43. All ammonium salts liberate ammonia when -
Ans. Heated with caustic soda
Sol. 2NH4Cl + 2NaOH  2NH3 + 2NaCl + 2H2O
44. Which of the following gives green colour to the flame ?
(i) BaCl2 (ii) CaCl2
Ans. BaCl2
45. Which of the following compound does not dissolve in hot dil. HNO3 ?
(i) HgS (ii) PbS
Ans. HgS
46. What is nessler’s reagent ?
Ans. K2HgI4
47. An object is located at a height of 5 km from the surface of the earth. The object is located in which part of
atmosphere ?
Ans. Troposphere
48. Which gases are absorbers of IR-radiation ?
Ans. Carbondioxide and chlorofluorocarbons.
49. Write formula for tear gas.
Ans. CCl3NO2
50. Which metal is used for drying organic solvents ?
Ans. Na

KVPY(BIOLOGY) INTERVIEW QUESTIONS

KVPY(BIOLOGY)
1. Why are the enzymes activate in a specific range ?
A. Enzymes are made up of proteins which usually activate in 5ºc – 45ºc. Below 5ºc enzyme become freezed
while at more than 45º c temp they become denatured.
2. Why plants can do photosynthesis in visible light ?
A. Because two kind of photosystems are present in plants which are known as PS- / P700 & PS / P680 that
can absorb only 700nm & 680nm light respectively.
3. How we get innate immunity ?
A. Innate immunity is present from birth. This kind of immunity is obtained from immunoglobin G & A.
Specially gG can pass through the placenta.
4. What is the difference between antibiotics and antibodies ?
A. Antibiotics are specific chemicals which are obtained from microbes but antibodies are specific immunoglobins
which are formed inside the living being against a specific antigen.
5. What will happen if we provide O+ve blood to an O–ve person at first time ?
A. No effect i.e. the person can survive because antibodies are not formed in sufficient amount against
inserted antigen.
6. Why can’t we see in normal light just after coming from high light intensity ?
A. There are 2 reasons -
i) due to the change in lens shape / focal length.
ii) In high light intensity Rhodopsin has been dissociate in Retinene & Scotopsin.
Rhodopsin
in Light
In dark
Retinene + Scotopsin + Energy
& A little time is required to sysnthesize rhodopsin again.
7. Is there any relation in body size & heartbeat ?
A. Yes, if body size is small then heart beat will be greater because of quick circulation in small sized body.
8. What will happen if lungs are replaced by balloon ?
A. It will burst due to absence of strech-receptors.
9. What will happen if we put shoot tipless potted plant towards an open window in a dark room ?
A. It will never bent toward the light due to absence of rich auxin.
10. What will happen if we cut the cardiac nerve ?
A. First the heart beat become irregular & after a short time it will be rhythmic.
11. Why can’t restriction enzyme cut its source DNA ?
A. Restriction enzymes can’t cut bacterial or source DNA because it is methylated.
12. Why does the people live at high altitude have reddish skin ?
A. Because at high altitude atmospheric pressure is low in compare to plane area and haemoglobin is not
able to bind with sufficient O2. So number of R.B.C. (amount of Hb) increase to make balance in the body
state.
13. Why the plant cloning is easier than animal cloning ?
A. Because plants have more totipotent cells in compare to animals.
14. Why organs have specific functions although the whole animal body is made of a single cell zygote ?
A. Because during embryonic development gene switch - off & switch on mechanism occur which leads in
differentiation.
15. How do migratory birds identify their way ?
A. They use earth ‘s magnetic field & angle of sunlight which is coming to their eye, to identify the way.
16. Why is CO harmful for humans but not for the insects ?
A. n human blood haemoglobin work as respiratory pigment which having the highest binding capability
with CO but in insects respiratory pigment is absent so diffusion of gases do not
interrupted.
17. How can animal recognize their infants ?
A. Animals like cattle identify their infants by their pheromone which they apply on them during lapping.
18. What will happen if we eliminate all the secondary consumers from a food chain ?
A. Number of tertary consumers will decrease due to absence of their food & Number of primary consumers
will increase because of the absence of their predators.
19. Why do only specific microbes can do nitrogen fixation ?
A. Because of presence of nif-gene.
20. What will happen if a person having blood group ‘A’ receive the blood of blood group B.
A. A - Blood grouped person having ‘b’ antibodies which can recognize ‘B’ antigen of blood group ‘B”. So
antigen antibody reaction occur which result in agglutination that leads in death.
21. Why lymph is called middle man of the body ?
A. Lymph constitutes the internal medium in which the tissue cells are bathed. During respiration, nutrition
& excretion cells draw in O2 & nutrients & expell excrete waste from the lymph thus tissue fluid / lymph
act as middle man of body.
22. Which organ is known as ‘traffic police man of body’ & why ?
A. Epiglottis a leaf shaped cartilaginous flap of the skin is known as traffic policeman of body because it
prevents the food from entering the glottis to cover it while swallowing.
23. Can an unfertilized egg form a new organism in the sexually reproducing type of organisms ? & Name the
term which are associated with it.
A. Yes, an individual can be developed from an unfertilized egg as in honey bee (as drone). Parthenogenesis
& Parthenocarpy are the terms which are used for it.
24. If sexual reproduction was removed from the entire living world , what will be the consequence in the term
of evolution ? (when mutation is also absent ).
A. If sexual reproduction was removed from the entire living world there would be no variation and no new
species will be formed. However variation is necessary for evolution & therefore evolution will stop.
25. How does Plasmodium inserted in human body ?
A. When female anopheles sucks the human blood, it inserts its saliva in human blood to stop clotting thus
Plasmodium which is present in the salivary gland of mosquito released in human body.
26. Why do the water bodies get polluted by loading of nutrients ?
A. Due to excessive of nutrients there will be high growth of algae at water surface which is known as
eutrophication. Due to the exceed growth, Algae make a physical barrier between atmosphere &
hydrosphere . So light & gases are unable to insert in hydrosphere and there will be no photosynthesis as
well as no liberation of O2 & due to absence of O2 all the plants & animals will die thus the water body get
polluted.
27. A farmer floods his field every day thinking that watering in this manner will result in a better yield of his
wheat crop. What will be the result of this action of the farmer ?
A. The soil is likely to get water logged which is unfit for the growth of wheat plants.
28. Why insectivorous plants catch insects ?
A. These plants grow in N2 deplete area so to get N2 they catch insect & digest their body protein to form their
own proteins.
29. Why some animal show hibernation ?
A. Cold blooded animals are unable to adjust their body temprature in variable environment. To survive in low
temprature they under go in long winter sleep where they minimize their metabolism & utilize rest of the
energy to warm up their body.
30. Why the wall of ventricle is thicker than auricle ?
A. Because ventricle have to supply the blood in whole body parts while auricle have to receive blood.
31. Why do we feel high temprature in grainery ?
A. Grains are stored in grainery. They do respiration in which energy is librated out as heat that raise the
temprature of grainery.
32. Where should wax applied in a submerged plant’s leaf to slower the transpiration rate ?
A. No need of it because they have inactive stomata & submerged plants can’t do transpiration.
33. Why salt is used in pickle as preservative ?
A. Because of salt, the solution become hypertonic where microbes get plasmolysed & pickle can be
preserved.
34. What will happen if we apply the wax on an insect’s body surface ?
A. Insect will die because of the closure of spiracles.
35. Why the plants leaves fall in autumn ?
A. Because vascular tissue is blocked due to callose deposition & simultaneously ABA concentration will
raise which form abscission layer at the base of leaves.
36. What will happen if we provide another stimulus before the ending of previous stimulus ?
A. Response will be the result of the addition of all the stimuli according to the law of summation.
37. Why does a drunker stumble ?
A. Alcohal affect the cerebellum which make the balance during walking.
38. Haemoglobin bind with O2 but this process is not called oxidation, why ?
A. Because in haemoglobin Fe present in Fe+2 state after addition of O2 there is no change in the oxidation
number of Fe so its not oxidation.This is called oxygenation process.
39. Why vein appear blue in colour ?
A. Because it reflect blue colour of light.
40. How can insect survive after sucking various kind of blood group’s blood ?
A. Because in insects the blood goes to digestive tract where it is digested but in human it insert into
circulatory system.
41. What is ‘rigor mortis’ ?
A. During muscle contraction actin binds with myosine and form actomyosin. But for the muscle relaxation,
ATP is required to break the bonding of actomyosine. After death ATP is not available, so the muscles
found in contracted position and this phenomenon is known as rigormortis.
42. Why can’t lysosomes digest its own wall although it is known as sucidial bags ?
A. Lysosome contains hydrolytic enzyme which are functional only in the persence of H2O . But inside the
lysosome H2O molecules are not available so they are inactive.
43. “Two species of a community can live in a same niche”. This statement is correct or incorrect and why ?
A. In correct because according to Gause hypothesis there will be the higest intraspecific struggle because
of same basic needs.
44. A man with type A blood has a wife type B. They have child with type O blood. s it possible, if yes than how ?
A. Yes, If both the parents having heterozygous genotype for their blood groups.
45. A student covered a leaf from a destarched plant with a black paper strip & kept it in the garden outside
his house in fresh air . In the evening he tested the covered portion of leaf for presence of starch. What the
student was trying to show ?
A. Light is necessary for photosynthesis.
46. What will happen if grana will removed from chloroplast ?
A. Light reaction will not happen.
47. What is the significance of plasmodesmata in tissue system ?
A. Plasmodesmata work as a protoplasmic connection, for example it is present in between sieve cell &
companion cell by means of this companion cell control the whole activity of sieve cells.
48. A certain tissue in a green plant somehow gets blocked and the leaves wilted. What was the tissue that
got blocked ?
A. Xylem.
49. UV rays are leathal because they inactivate____components of body.
A. Protein, Nucleic acid & pigments.
50. Why are the small number of surviving tigers a cause of worry from the point of view of genetics ?
A. Because their gene will eliminated from the gene pool , which harm to biodiversity.
VIBRANT
A Crash Course and Test Series
for NTSE stage-2 Preparation

ViVIBRANT is specially designed for NTSE-1 qualified students, to prepare for the NTSE Stage-2 examination to be held in 09 May 2010.
The Programme would include classroom teaching and test series to give the students an exact idea of the exam and will prepare them for the best.


Both Classes and Test Series (Live & Online) will be starting in April'2010.

Sunday, January 17, 2010

"Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana" (KVPY)

The "Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana" (KVPY) is a program started during 1999 by the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India to encourage students of Basic Sciences, Engineering and Medicine to take up research careers in these areas.
The aim of the program is to identify and encourage talented students with aptitude for research.This program strives to assist the students to realises their potential and to ensure that the best scientific talent is developed for research and growth in the country. Generous scholarship and contingency grant is provided (up to the Pre-Ph.D. level) to the selected students.
The KVPY is funded by the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India. The program is administered by the Indian Institute of Science (IISc, Bangalore), through the overall control of the Chief Executive (SID). The selection of students from those who are studying +1, +2, any U.G. Program including First/Second year Engineering/Medicine are carried out by IISc (Bangalore), IIT-Bombay (Mumbai), and ICMR (New Delhi), respectively, in association with two Zonal Centres one at Kolkata (Indian Institute of Science Education Research, Kolkata) and another at Mumbai (HBCSE, TIFR). There are special groups or committees set up at IISc, IIT and ICMR which screen the applications, conduct interviews at various centres, make the final selection and attend to follow-up matters. The Department of Science and Technology - the nodal agency of the Government has entrusted the overall responsibility for organising the scheme to the Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore and set up a National Advisory Committee (NAC) for overseeing its implementation. A Basic Committee and a National Scientific Committee has been set up to monitor various aspects, both administrative and academic, of the KVPY Program.
Though the KVPY fellowships are meant for students for high school, undergraduate and graduate studies in the fields of science, engineering and medicine. Here I am talking only about the students of class XI science stream.

Eligibility
Students enrolled in the XI Standard (Science Subjects) during the academic year 2009-2010 and have secured a minimum of 75% (65% for SC/ST) marks in aggregate in MATHEMATICS and SCIENCE subjects in the X Standard Board Examination. After scrutiny of application forms and based on the performance in the Board Examination, all the eligible candidates are called for a written aptitude test (multiple choice). The test is conducted at different centers across the country normally on the first Sunday of November month. Based on the performance in the aptitude test candidates are called for an interview which is the final stage of the selection procedure.

Fellowship


Monthly Fellowship Annual Contingency
After X Class Rs. 4000 Rs. 12000
During B.Sc and 1st to 3rd years of Integrated M.Sc
Rs. 5000 Rs. 20000
During M.Sc and 4th and 5th year of Inegrated M.Sc
Rs. 7000 Rs. 28000


Continuation of fellowship
Annual renewal of fellowships will depend on maintaining good academic performance first class/60% in aggregate marks in the chosen stream and satisfactory performance in summer programs.

(KVPY Fellows in the Basic Sciences selected in XI Std (Stream SA) who opt out of the science stream at the end of XII Standard will forego the Fellowship and Contingency support.)


Privileges

Summer program is an important part of the nurture program for KVPY Fellow. These are meant to expose the Fellows to methods of scientific research and inculcate in them an abiding interest in doing scientific research. These are normally organised during the summer vacation, when KVPY Fellows spend one or two weeks in scientific institutions listening to lectures by experts in different fields of science, engineering or medicine, seems things in a research environment, watching scientists at work/science in action, interacting with scientists, visiting nearby scientific research laboratories and institutions, and exchanging views with other research students. Sometimes Fellows with specific interest are associated with individual scientists who talk to them about their interest, help them to clear their doubts, give them problem, to work out let them to do experiments, and tell them about the future scope in the area of their interest.

Other Privileges
An Identity Card is issued to each KVPY Fellows. Several national laboratories, universities and other institutions have agreed to extend special privileges like library, laboratory facilities to KVPY Fellows on production of the ID card.

This years KVPY interview are starting from today. All the best for the aspirants. Hope all of u will come out of this interview with flying colours.

We at Resonance, Kota conducted a two days extensive workshop for KVPY interview preparation. In this workshop 35 students participated. It included a session on how to face interview followed by a mock interview session in which subject teachers scrutinised the aspirants and judged them according to their reply and finally provided them the feedback. We also conducted a KVPY interview preparation workshop at Lucknow. Anybody who is appearing for KVPY interview this year and is facing any sort of problem in facing the interview can contact us at pccp@resonance.ac.in or call us at 0744-3204024.


Saturday, January 9, 2010


Bridge Course

Nowadays, education institutes take students on the basis of their abilities such as understanding of concepts, sharpness of mind and knowledge; therefore, they launch common exams for all students, which create lots of competition among students.

These common exams are specially designed to test special characteristics of student and are often called Entrance Exams because on the basis of performance of Entrance Examination institutes are able to choose good students, and also it helps the management to allot initial batches to students for that particular session.

So to reduce the students' anxiety "Resonance Pre-foundation Career Care Programmes (PCCP) Division has been announced a Bridge Course which will help students to bridge the difference between class-X (Board Pattern) and class XI (Competitive Examination Pattern).

www.pccp.resonance.ac.in

Friday, January 8, 2010


Compact Workshop for
INAO & INJSO Preparation.


Registrations are open for 15 days workshop of Indian National Astronomy Olympiad (INAO) & Indian National Junior Science Olympiad (INJSO).
Workshop starting from Jan 11'1010.

To know more log on to www.pccp.resonance.ac.in

164 students of Resonance achieved success in the first stage of various International Olympiads

In the recently declared results of first stage of various International Olympiads, students of Resonance showed their dominance. 164 students of Resonance have been declared qualified for the second stage of these International Olympiads. Study Centres of Resonance at Kota contributed 59, Jaipur contributed 86, Bhopal 2, Udaipur 6, Lucknow 3 and Mumbai with 8 selections together summed up this huge figure. All the selected students are enrolled in Resonance Yearlong Classroom Contact Programmes (YCCPs).

The legacy of Resonance in International Olympiad is not quite old but it is highly impressive and commendable. Students from Resonance have contributed 9 medals (2 Gold and 7 Silver) in last 3 years in the tally of medals won by Indians in International Olympiads. Out of these 9 students, 6 students were registered in the regular classroom programmes and 3 in correspondence programmes.

International Olympiads for Physics, Chemistry, Maths, Biology and Sr. Astronomy are organized for the students of class XI and XII. International Junior Science Olympiad and Junior Astronomy are organized for students upto class X. First stage is upto regional level, Second upto National level, third stage is Orientation cum Scholarship Camp, fourth is Pre-departure Training Camp and the fifth & final round is International Olympiads. Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education (HBCSE), Mumbai coordinates the preliminary four rounds of International Olympiads with the support of Indian Association of Physics Teachers (IAPT) and National Board of Higher Mathematics.

The host countries for International Olympiads of 2010 will be Jagreb (Croatia) for International Physics Olympiad (IPhO), Tokyo (Japan) for International Chemistry Olympiad (IChO), Bejing (China) for International Astronomy and International Astrophysics Olympiad (IOA & IOAA) and Nigeria for International Junior Science Olympiad (IJSO).
The topping of this cake is the performance of 4 students from the institute who are selected in first round of four Olympiads (Physics, Chemistry, Maths and Sr. Astronomy). 2 students of Resonance Kota Study Centre have been selected in first stage of International Olympiads in Physics, Chemistry, Maths, Sr. Astronomy and also Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana (KVPY) and 2 students of Resonance Jaipur study centre have been selected in first stage of International Olympiads in Physics, Chemistry, Maths, Sr. Astronomy.5 students of Resonance have been selected in first stage of International Olympiads for Physics, Chemistry and Sr. Astronomy and 22 students are selected in more than two Olympiads.

Sunday, January 3, 2010

Pocket money should be spent judiciously

BE THRIFTY: Students must be encouraged to save money by minimising wasteful expenses and maintaining track of their expenditure.

Earlier, pocket money was given to children to meet unforeseen expenses in emergency situations or as a reward for a job well done. Of course, it was limited in quantity and was expected to be spent judiciously. However, this simple phenomenon which was meant to boost a kid's morale and also give him/her scope to develop financial discipline has metamorphed into an undeserving privilege for many.

Pocket money has become a means for ostentatious display of 'brand' conscious kids who derive a pseudo pleasure of financial independence. This is unfortunate, particularly in times of economic recession and political chaos. The reason for this upswing may be attributed to three main factors viz. mass media (movies, television, internet, etc.), busy work schedules of parents and peer pressure.

This can only be solved when children realise the effort that goes into earning even a penny and develop the maturity of understanding the difference between essentiality and extravagance. Of course, treating oneself once in a while as a refreshing measure is acceptable but vigilance only can prevent from indulgence. Children must be encouraged to save money by minimising wasteful expenses and maintaining track of their expenditure. This is possible only when parents interfere (periodically only) to provide some fiscal awareness to the child and encourage him/her to verify the investment-worth equation of their transaction. If this is corrected, then automatically the other two factors would be subdued in their impact.

Saturday, January 2, 2010

National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)

The National Talent Search Examination (NTSE) is a national level scholarship program in India to identify and nurture talented students. The scheme is open to students of Indian nationality. Only students studying in Class VIII are eligible to appear for the selection process. As it is organized by an official body (NCERT), it is widely regarded as the toughest and most prestigious examination at high school level in the country.

Soon after NCERT was established in 1961, a programme to identify and nurture the talented students took up the shape of a scheme called National Science Talent Search Scheme (NSTSS) in the year 1963. The objective of this scheme was to identify talented students and awarding them with scholarships.

The scheme was partially decentralized in 1985. Under the new arrangement, the selection of candidates for the awards became a two-tier process. The states and the union territories have been entrusted with the responsibility of conducting the first tier screening examination known as State Level Talent Search Examination. The states got complete autonomy to design and conduct their written examinations. However, they were advised to follow the national pattern which comprised MAT and SAT.

A stipulated number of candidates who gets qualified at the national level examination are called for face-to-face interviews. The award of scholarships is finally determined on the basis of the candidates’ scores obtained in all three components namely the MAT, the SAT and the Interview (MAT and SAT papers from II phase, I phase is only considered for scrutiny).

From the year 2000 the number of scholarships was raised to 1000 with the provision of reservation for SC and ST candidates based on the national norms of 15% and 7.5% respectively.

The scholarships under the present scheme are awarded to the candidates for pursuing courses in sciences and social sciences up to doctoral level and in professional courses like medicine and engineering up to second-degree level subject to the fulfillment of the conditions provided in this brochure.

Selection procedure

Identification of talent comprises a three-stage selection process. While the individual state or union territory conducts the first stage selection, the second stage selection at the national level is carried out by the NCERT, usually on the second Sunday of May. This is followed by the interview of the selected 1500-1600 students.

Eligibility

Before 2006, all students studying in Class X in any type of recognized school were eligible to appear at the state level examination from the state in which the school is located. The state could impose any other eligibility condition for appearing in the screening examination like any qualifying percentage of marks in the previous annual examination, etc. But from 2006 onwards, a separate examination for Class VIII has started. More than 1,50,000 students appear for the screening examination of the NTSE every year.

From 2008-2009 National Talent Search examination is held only for class VIII.

State level examination

The state level examination has two parts for nominating the required number of candidates for the second level test to be conducted by the NCERT.

  • Part-I:Mental Ability Test (MAT), (the MAT, which consists of 90 multiple choice type questions, is to be attempted by all the candidates.)
  • Part-II: Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT). The SAT consists of 90 multiple choice type questions (35 from Science, 35 from Social Science and 20 from Maths). Each state and union territory selects and recommended a stipulated number (state quota) of candidates for the national level examination to be conducted for about 3000 candidates by the NCERT.

National level examination

Candidates acquiring more than the required percentage in the state level examination and within a specified number of top ranks (state quota) are eligible to appear for the national level examination. NCERT conducts the National Level NTS each year in the 2nd week of May for about 3000 candidates. The national level examination has two parts for nominating the required number of candidates for the interviews to be conducted by the NCERT:

  • Part-I:Mental Ability Test (MAT), and
  • Part-II: Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)(with questions on history, civics, geography, rarely economics, maths, physics, chemistry and biology.)

Scheme of Testing

The scheme of testing is given below:

TestDurationNo. of ItemsMaximum MarksQualifying Marks(General)Qualifying Marks(SC/ST/PC)
Mental Ability Test (MAT)90 minutes90 MCQ & 10 questions of one word or sentence
1004032
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)90 minutes90 MCQs , (35 in Science,
20 in Mathematics & 35 in Social Science) &10 questions of one word or one sentence each.
1004032






Interview

Candidates acquiring more than the required percentage in the national level examination and standing in about top 1500-1600 students across India and abroad are eligible to appear for the interview. The interview pattern is based on the regular courses, that is the general subjects taught in the schools like science, history, geography , civics etc. It must be noted that the questions asked may be related to theoretical parts of the subjects and may not be just general questions. It is advised to study the school curriculum carefully. Students should also have extra information of higher classes to excel. Normally you must concentrate on SAT rather than MAT.

According to NTSE 2009 final results, the cut-off marks for general category stood at 155/225 (200 for written test+25 for interview), for SC-122/225, for ST-118/225 and for PC/disabled-72/225.

Syllabus

There is no Prescribed syllabus for the NTSE examination. However, the standard of items conforms to the level of CBSE Class 8 Public Examinations. Also, parts of classes IX and X are also included.

Scholarship

The students who qualify all the stages of NTSE successfully are eligible for scholarship. The amount of scholarship has been enhanced to Rs. 500/- per month for all the students studying in Class IX onwards except for Ph.D., wherein it is paid according to UGC norms. The older system of book grant has been removed. The criterion of parental income for deciding payment of scholarship has also been discontinued.



























Friday, January 1, 2010

WEIGHTAGE ANALYSIS SHEET - IIT-JEE

It provides a detailed information on number of questions asked in IIT-JEE in the past 10 years from Physics, Chemistry , and Mathematics each. It is available in Tabular as well as Graphical form.